Chemistry, asked by Chiragbansal2338, 1 year ago

Why screening effect of d electrons "equal" to p electrons quora?

Answers

Answered by 10kadam
0
is down to the properties of the wavefunction which corresponds to the orbital (indeed, an orbital and a wavefunction are the same thing). 

Michael Flynn already answered your question, so I don't really have much to add. I had started a draft with an answer which I didn't manage to complete earlier but I decided to post it anyway. 


So, a wavefunction has a radial part and an angular component. The analytical expression of the radial component can be plotted to show the radial distribution function of each orbital. On the x axis you have radius and on the y axis is the square of the radial component of the wavefunction multiplied by 4πr2" role="presentation" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0px; outline: 0px; display: inline; font-style: normal; font-weight: normal; line-height: normal; font-size: 14px; text-indent: 0px; text-align: left; text-transform: none; letter-spacing: normal; word-spacing: normal; word-wrap: normal; white-space: nowrap; float: none; direction: ltr; max-width: none; max-height: none; min-width: 0px; min-height: 0px; border: 0px; position: relative;">4πr24πr2. This is done, so that one can obtain the probability density of finding an electron. 


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