Question

If the roots of the equation m(n-p)x²+n(p-m)x +p(m-n) =0 are equal then show that 1/m+1/p=2/n
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PLEASE ANSWER FAST!!

Answer 1

if the roots are equal then the discriminant will be zero that is
${b }^{2} - 4ac =0$
$(n(p - m)) ^{2} - 4m(n - p) \times p(m - n) = 0$
now you can easily solve it ..
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