If the roots of the equation m(n-p)x²+n(p-m)x +p(m-n) =0 are equal then show that 1/m+1/p=2/n
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if the roots are equal then the discriminant will be zero that is
![{b }^{2} - 4ac =0 {b }^{2} - 4ac =0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=+%7Bb+%7D%5E%7B2%7D++-+4ac+%3D0)
![(n(p - m)) ^{2} - 4m(n - p) \times p(m - n) = 0 (n(p - m)) ^{2} - 4m(n - p) \times p(m - n) = 0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28n%28p+-+m%29%29+%5E%7B2%7D++-+4m%28n+-+p%29+%5Ctimes+p%28m+-+n%29+%3D+0)
now you can easily solve it ..
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if it helps you please mark me as a brainliest..
now you can easily solve it ..
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if it helps you please mark me as a brainliest..
JZ7:
Bro could you solve that part I have problem in that part only!!
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