prove that
(1-sin^2A) sec^2A = 1
Answers
Answered by
4
Step-by-step explanation:
(1-sin^2A)*sec^2A
since 1-sin^2A=cos^2A so we get
cos^2A*sec^2A
sec^2A can be written as 1/cos^2A so we get
cos^2A*1/cos^2A
so cos^2A get cancelled so we get
(1-sin^2A)sec^2A=1
hope u understood
Answered by
1
Answer:
it's totally depend on identities in trigonometry
Step-by-step explanation:
L.H.S = (1 - sin^2A) sec^2A
= ( Cos^2A) sec ^2A as sin^2A+Cos^2A =1
= 1/ sec^2A × sec^2A
=1
= R.H.S
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